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Disclaimer: these are my personal solutions; they have not been
reviewed, so be careful relying on them as there might be errors. Some
competitions may have official solutions from the contest publishers which
you may wish to refer to instead if you’re looking for verified solutions.
Problem 5#
Two elements A, B in a group G have the property ABA−1B=1, where
1 denotes the identity element in G.
- Show that AB2=B−2A.
- Show that ABn=B−nA for any integer n.
- Find u and v so that (BaAb)(BcAd)=BuAv.
Hints#
Hint #1 for (a)
This may require a multi-step process; first, try solving for A and see where
you get to.
Hint #2 for (a)
First, try to prove the initial case AB=B−1A. Then, combine it with the
result from hint #1 above and see where that leads.
Hint for (b)
Can you use the result from part (a) to help you extend it to arbitrary n?
Hint for (c)
Use the result from part (b) as well as the hint #1 from part (a) and see if
you can apply both of them. You may need to apply a property of groups to
rearrange the equation to help you make these transformations.
Solution for (a)#
Open to see the solution; try solving it first or see the hints above!
The goal is to show that AB2=B−2A. Let’s start with the given equation,
find a way to simplify it to compute A, and then see what we can do with
that.
ABA−1BABA−1BB−1ABA−1ABA−1AABABB−1A=1=B−1=B−1=B−1A=B−1A=B−1AB−1=B−1AB−1givenright-multiply by B−1simplifyright-multiply by Asimplify (1)right-multiply by B−1simplify (2)Now, let’s substitute the value for A from eq. (2) into the right side of
eq. (1):
ABABABABBAB2=B−1A=B−1B−1AB−1=B−2AB−1=B−2AB−1B=B−2Aeq. (1) abovesubstitute A in rhs from eq. (2)simplifyright-multiply by Bsimplify■Solution for (b)#
Open to see the solution; try solving it first or see the hints above!
In part (a), we showed that AB2=B−2A, and we showed it by first finding
that AB=B−1A and then extending it by substituting A on the right-hand
side. We can easily extend this to AB3, etc. manually, but what we need to
do here is to prove the general case for any n.
Thus, we will prove it by induction:
- first, we will prove this for a base case, e.g., n=1;
- then we will assume that this holds for some arbitrary n, and given that,
we will prove it for n+1.
Let’s start with n=1, which takes the form AB=B−1A. This was already
proven in part (a), so we’re done.
ABnABnABnBABn+1=B−nA=B−nB−1AB−1=B−nB−1AB−1B=B−(n+1)Aassumption to prove inductive casesubstitute for A from eq. (2) in part (a)right-multiply by Bsimplify■Solution for (c)#
Open to see the solution; try solving it first or see the hints above!
(BaAb)(BcAd)Ba(AbBc)AdBa(Ab−1ABc)AdBa(Ab−1B−cA)AdBa(Ab−2AB−cA)AdBa(Ab−2BcA2)Ad=BuAv=BuAv=BuAv=BuAv=BuAv=BuAvgivenreassociatefactor out Ausing result from part (b)factor out another Ausing result from part (b)At this point, we see a curious pattern: we can keep factoring out an A term
from Ab and transfer it to the right side of the B±c term, but each
time we do, the sign of the exponent of B changes! Thus, if b is even, it
remains as Bc, but if b is odd, it becomes B−c.
Hence, let’s define
c′={c−cif bmod2≡0if bmod2≡1The exponent of A will move over as-is, so the end result will be:
BaBc’AbAd=BuAv
which can be simplified to:
Ba+c’Ab+d=BuAv
so we have
u=a+c’,v=b+dwith c’=±c as defined above.■