Disclaimer: these are my personal solutions; they have not been
reviewed, so be careful relying on them as there might be errors. Some
competitions may have official solutions from the contest publishers which
you may wish to refer to instead if you’re looking for verified solutions.
Given the linear fractional transformation of x into f1(x)=x+12x−1,
define fn+1(x)=f1(fn(x)) for n=1,2,3,…. It can be shown that f35=f5. Determine A, B, C, and D so that f28(x)=Cx+DAx+B.
Open to see the solution; try solving it first or see the hints above!
Per the problem statement, we know that:
fn+1(x)=f1(fn(x))
which tells us that fn(x) is equivalent to n successive applications of
f1:
fn(x)=f1 applied n times to xf1(f1(…f1(x)…))
Note: below, for notational simplicity, we will replace fn(x) with
fn to eliminate the often-appearing (x) term, which will make it easier
to read. We will bring it back when necessary.
What we need to find is f28, so we could just apply f1(x) recursively
28 times, but that seems tedious and not a good use of our time (and
especially, if we were doing this in a timed math contest, as VTRMC is, we
would not have enough time for the other problems), so we need to find a
shortcut here.
Since the problem statement also tells us that f35=f5, we see that
there’s a cycle, which implies that we can align these functions forward and
backward to find other equivalences:
f36f35f34⋮=f6=f5=f4⋮given in problem statement
Why can we assume that f35=f5 implies that functions align forward and
backward? Let’s look at the forward computation:
fnf1(fn)fn+1=fk=f1(fk)=fk+1replace each side s with f1(s)
We can similarly run this backwards:
fnf1(fn−1)fn−1=fk=f1(fk−1)=fk−1from the definition aboveremove f1 application from each side (see note below)
Note: why can we remove the f1 application from each side above?
Because f1 is injective, which means that if f1(x)=f1(y), then x=y for all x,y.
Why is f1 injective? Let’s take f1(x)=x+12x−1 and
consider f1(a) and f1(b) and see if that implies that a=b:
f1(a)a+12a−1(2a−1)(b+1)2ab−b+2a−1−b+2a3aa=f1(b)=b+12b−1=(2b−1)(a+1)=2ab−a+2b−1=−a+2b=3b=bexpand f1cross-multiplyexpand termssubtract 2ab−1combine like termsdivide by 3
We’ve shown that f1(a)=f1(b)⟹a=b for all a,b.
Therefore, we can run f1 applications backward from f35=f5 to find
other equivalences.
Since we need to find the definition of f28, let’s run the equivalences
backward enough to find what it’s equivalent to:
f35f34f33f32f31f30f29f28=f5=f4=f3=f2=f1=?=?=?given in problem statementwhat we’re trying to compute
However, fn is only defined for n≥1, so we have to stop at f31=f1, and then we can compute the rest of the functions iteratively.
First, note that since f31(x)=f1(f30(x))=f1(x), we have
f30(x)=x.
Second, we know that f30(x)=f1(f29(x))=x, so let’s compute
f29:
f30(x)f30xxx(f29+1)x⋅f29+xx⋅f29−2f29f29⋅(x−2)f29f29=f1(f29(x))=f1(f29)=f1(f29)=f29+12f29−1=2f29−1=2f29−1=−x−1=−x−1=x−2−x−1=2−xx+1from problem statementsimplify notation per abovesubstitute f30 per aboveevaluate f1distribute xgroup like termsfactor out f29solve for f29simplify signs
Finally, let’s compute f28:
f292−xx+12−xx+1(x+1)(f28+1)x⋅f28+x+f28+13x⋅f28−3f28x⋅f28−f28f28(x−1)f28f28=f1(f28)=f1(f28)=f28+12f28−1=(2f28−1)(2−x)=4⋅f28−2x⋅f28−2+x=x−x−2−1=−3=−1=−1=x−1−1=1−x1from problem statementsubstitute definition of f29evaluate f1cross-multiplyexpandcombine like termsdivide by 3factor out f28solve for f28, solution Asimplify signs, solution B
The problem asks us to find A, B, C, and D to satisfy
f28(x)=Cx+DAx+B
However, as we saw above, there are actually multiple solutions to this
problem, since we can multiply the numerator and denominator by any real number
to obtain another valid solution.
f28(x)=Cx+DAx+B=1−x1=−x+10x+1from problem statementfrom solution B abovereorganize to match pattern
Therefore, A=0;B=1;C=−1;D=1 is
one valid solution.
Another solution is:
f28(x)=Cx+DAx+B=x−1−1=x−10x−1from problem statementfrom solution A abovereorganize to match pattern
Here, the solution is: A=0;B=−1;C=1;D=−1 which can be obtained by multiplying the numbers in the above box by
−1. ■